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Exam Code: HP0-J35
Exam Name: HP (HP Data Protector software Application Integration-Windows)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 How do you back up Microsoft Exchange databases within a storage group?
A. sequentially
B. oldest files first
C. in parallel
D. longest filenames first
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the primary function of an application integration agent?
A. offline backup
B. synthetic full backup
C. hot database backup
D. split mirror backup
Answer: C

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NO.3 What should be considered when SAP/R3 is backed up using backint?
A. BRBACKUP cannot be used to back up SAP/R3.
B. It is impossible to perform incremental backups.
C. The backup objects must be manually propagated to the internal database.
D. Hot database backup cannot be performed on the data files.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of devices used in a backup session for Microsoft Exchange?
A. one for the complete backup specification
B. equal to the number of databases within a storage group
C. equal to the number of storage groups
D. unlimited, as the storage group can be sub-divided into many objects
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which filesystem is supported for the backup of VSS writers?
A. NTFS
B. DFSR
C. NDMP
D. CIFS
Answer: A

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Exam Code: Hp2-E21
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Commercial Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which HP server should you recommend to a budget-conscious SMB customer who requires a
tower platform for a single-function application?
A. HP ProLiant BL series
B. HP ProLiant ML1xx series
C. HP ProLiant ML3xx series
D. HP ProLiant ML5xx series
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which phrase most accurately describes SMB customers?
A. IT services typically drive their business operations.
B. The main focus is on their business and not their IT infrastructure.
C. IT infrastructure typically consists of multiple vendors and platforms.
D. They are very concerned with business continuity and disaster-recovery solute
Answer: A

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NO.3 During stage 2 of the sales cycle, identify the opportunity, what should be done?
A. create a reference story
B. discover customer business challenges
C. confirm the customer's budget and commitment
D. prepare the terms and conditions of the proposal
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement is true about a consultative sale?
A. The sales process is based on adding value
B. The customer has a predefined product and solution they want.
C. The sales process focuses on commodity elements of the lowest price.
D. The sales process focuses on the fastest shipment and arrival date of product
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement is true about the SMB customer?
A. SMB customers typically deploy Integrity servers
B. More than 80% of SMB customers have external RAID storage solutions.
C. SMB customers typically deploy X86 systems running Windows applications.
D. The majority of SMB customers use Linux and UNIX clustered operating systems.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which type of sales process typically focuses on pricing and delivery?
A. solution sale
B. lifecycle sale
C. consultative sale
D. transactional sale
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which services elements are targeted for commercial or SMB customers?
A. Critical Services
B. Referral Services
C. Premium Services
D. Basic Support Services
Answer: D

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NO.8 The finger print reader is an example of which type of feature?
A. security
B. reliability
C. performance
D. HP exclusive product differentiator
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-E31
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Enterprise Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 The opening stages of a customer meeting are critical to the overall success of the meeting. What
should you always agree on at the beginning of each customer sales meeting? (Select two.)
A. the duration and agenda
B. the next action and the owner
C. the customer's objectives for the meeting
D. date for next meeting
E. the project timescales and budget
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Traditionally IT departments have spent which percentage of their budget on operations and which
percentage on innovation?
A. 60% operations and 40% innovation
B. 50% operations and 50% innovation
C. 70% operations and 30% innovation
D. 40% operations and 60% innovation
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the characteristics of an HP converged infrastructure?
A. Virtualized.Resilient. Orchestrated. Optimized, and Modular
B. Virtualized.Resilient. Orchestrated. Ongoing, and Modular
C. Virtualized.Robust. Orchestrated, Optimized, and Modular
D. Virtualized.Robust. Orchestrated, Optimized, and Managed
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which type of costs can HP Insight Manager typically reduce by at least 29%?
A. procurement
B. administration
C. server
D. floor space
Answer: B

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NO.5 Why it is so important to ask"Probing" questions in a sales situation? (Select two.)
A. The help to assess if the customer has a genuine requirement and is likely to invest.
B. They help to uncover or create the customers business needs.
C. They help to determine the customer's view of the competition.
D. They help in understanding the customer's problems or challenges and the associated
implications.
E. They help toarrive at the most accurate pricing structure for the project.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Why is it important to ask an Attitude question at the end of a sales meeting? (Select two.)
A. to establish the decision date, decision making criteria and basis of decision
B. to be polite
C. to establish the customer's real views about your proposals
D. to inquire as to how someone else in the organization might view the proposals
E. to eliminate the competition from the sales opportunity
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 At the end of a customer meeting it is important to establish the next actions and seek agreement from
the customer on their actions. Which type of question should you ask at the end of the meeting?
A. Confirmation
B. Commitment
C. New Information
D. Conclusive
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are the benefits of pooling and sharing resources in a Converged Infrastructure? (Select two.)
A. IT can charge the business more accurately.
B. All users can access the same "Storage Area Network" (SAN) which reduces the time it takes to launch
new services.
C. IT can quickly reallocate resources to match the changing performance and capacity needs of different
applications.
D. IT can respond more quickly to business changes and requests for new services can be dealt with in
weeks not months
E. IT resources do not need to be involved in any aspect of service provisioning.
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 What is HP CI-MM Express?
A. It provides an assessment of the customer's current "as is" IT environment before proposing a
converged infrastructure evolution path.
B. It is a service designed to evaluate capacity across the server and storage estate.
C. It is a service to help customers implement "cloud computing."
D. It is a converged infrastructure measurement methodology that enables customers to predict future
server capacity requirements.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statements are true when describing the HP Converged Infrastructure? (Select two.)
A. Payback can be achieved in less than one year.
B. IT resources can be reduced by 50%.
C. IT services provisioning can be reduced from approximately one month to as little as two hours
D. Customers can achieve 95% equipment consolidation
E. Customers can achieve 95% cost savings.
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: HP2-H09
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Thin Clients)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 How should you present thin computing to your customers.?
A. as a set of product offerings
B. as a user-customizable solution
C. as a full-function computer infrastructure
D. as a business solution
Answer: D

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NO.2 Where do the data and applications reside in a thin client solution?
A. on the Internet
B. on a cluster of servers
C. on the client
D. in the data center
Answer: B

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NO.3 How does thin computing address education-specific challenges?
A. by enabling the school IT department to run applications internally
B. by allowing schooladministratorsto pay for actual application usage on a subscription basis
C. by increasing interactive learning while budgets are being cut
D. by automatically implementing software upgrades and patches to keep content current
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-Z03
Exam Name: HP (HP ProCurve Accredited Sales Consultant v9.11)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 39 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You are proposing an HP procure solution to a customer who has often complained about the expense
of network upgrades. What information can you provide the customer to address these concerns and
demonstrate that an HP Procure solution is the best choice for the company?
A. Because the HP Procure portfolio features proprietary technologies, these solutions are more reliable
than offered by competitors.
B. the HP Procure commitment to high-quality core devices eliminates costly upgrades for every device.
C. HP Procure offers a standard trade-in program to replace end-of life Procure devices.
D. HP Procure is committed to open standards, which ensures that its solutions remain valid in the future.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are meeting with a customer who has complained about their very limited budget for the networking
infrastructure. What can you say to demonstrate that HP Procure Networking offers the best choice for
them?
A. Procure offers a broad networking portfolio with products that are recognized as the least expensive,
minimizing the networking investment.
B. Procure solutions are designed tominimize"on-going" costs (OPEX), allowing this customer to shift the
budget toward investment (CAPEX).
C. Procure solutions are designed to minimize networking investment (CAPEX), allowing this customer to
shift the budget toward maintaining the network (OPEX).
D. Procure provides financial services that will solve the current budget issues.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are creating a networking solution proposal for a university. Which question helps you determine if
the network infrastructure must support traffic prioritization?
A. Does network access need to be available in older classroom buildings?
B. Does the university need to comply with any regulations and if so, do you need to prove
compliance?
C. Do you plan to enhance the learning experience with interactive virtual classrooms?
D. Do faculty members need access to more resources than students: for example, answer keys?
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer has asked you why it is worthwhile to invest in intelligence at the network edge. Which
statements accurately describe the benefits of doing so? (Select two.)
A. The network is scalable. The core is not overloaded when the edge is expanded.
B. Only the network edge is open-standards compliant and future-proof, so that is where the customer
should invest
C. The network edge provides everything required for an advanced access control solution.
D. The network edge provides features that HP Procure Security solutions can leverage.
E. The Procure edge devices are protected by the HP Procure Lifetime Warranty, but the core switches
are not.
Answer: C

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NO.5 How do your customers benefit from the ability of intelligent HP Procure edge devices to adapt to
converged network services? (Select two)
A. The network delivers premium quality for proprietary HP services.
B. Unified communications services offer high-quality VoIP transmission.
C. Customer resources are protected by service-specific content filtering.
D. The infrastructure filter out attempts to access inappropriate web content.
E. The services that the customer defines as mission-critical are given priority handling.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP3-031
Exam Name: HP (HP LaserJet 3000 and 3380/90 AIO series)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 28 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What allows remote status and diagnostics of HP LaserJet 3055 for multiple users?
A. Toolbox FX
B. Embedded Web Server
C. Printer Driver
D. Send Fax Utility
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer calls because he has been unable to install the software for this all-in-one device. He is
running Windows 2000 as a client.
What do you tell the customer?
A. The all-in-one device does not support Windows 2000.
B. The all-one-device supports only Windows 2000 Server.
C. The all-in-one device must be installed by a member of an IT department.
D. The person installing the all-in-one device must have administrative privileges to install the software.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How should you install an HP LaserJet 3015, 3020, 3030, and 3380 all-in-one device self-tapping
screw?
A. First turn the screw counterclockwise to align it with the existing threads. Then turn it clockwise to
tighten.
B. Use a flathead screwdriver to tighten the screw until it is flush against the side of the all-in-one device.
C. Use a #2 Philips head screwdriver to tighten the screw as tightly as you can, Over-tightening of this
type of screw is impossible.
D. Use aTorx head screwdriver to tighten the screw as tightly as you can. Over-tightening of this type of
screw is impossible.
Answer: A

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NO.4 When should a customer run the scrubber?
A. only with a failed software-first installation
B. only with a failed hardware-first installation
C. for either a failed software-first or hardware-first installation
D. never, for use by authorized personnel only
Answer: B

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NO.5 What three areas of the scanning mechanism have been improved to result in faster scan speed?
A. firmware, software, and hardware
B. power save mode, wake-up time, and formatter
C. firmware, HP LaserJet scan software, and scanner bulb warm up time
D. scanner head start position, scanner bulb warm-up time, and firmware
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-Y23
Exam Name: HP (Deploying HP ProCurve Products )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You must configure an IP interface on an HP ProCurve switch. Which CLI context will enable you to
perform this task?
A.router
B.manager
C.CLI passthrough
D.VLAN
Answer: D

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NO.2 You must configure an HP ProCurve 3500yl switch for installation in a network that uses RSTP to form
a single-instance Spanning Tree. What must you do to ensure that the 3500yl will participate in this
Spanning Tree?
A.Enter spanning-tree in the global configuration context.
B.Enter spanning-tree rstp in the configuration context for every VLAN the switch shares with another
switch.
C.Enter spanning-tree protocol-version rstp in the Spanning Tree configuration context.
D.Enter spanning-tree autodetect in the configuration context of every port where the switch will hear
Spanning Tree BPDUs.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You must configure an IP interface for VLAN 22 on an HP ProCurve switch. Besides the IP address,
which parameter is required?
A.subnet mask
B.DNS server
C.default gateway
D.port members
Answer: A

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NO.4 What can be used as a destination when backing up the configuration on an HP ProCurve 3500yl
switch? (Select two.)
A.TFTP server
B.compact flash
C.neighboring switch
D.USB flash drive
E.FTP server
Answer: AD

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NO.5 Which privilege level is indicated by the following prompt at the CLI of an HP ProCurve switch?
3500yl-24G>
A.operator
B.interface
C.global configuration
D.manager
Answer: A

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NO.6 Besides the CLI, which configuration interface enables an administrator to configure a user name for
access to the Manager privilege level on an HP ProCurve switch?
A.menu interface
B.web interface
C.setup interface
D.Management Interface Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which options are available at the following prompt in the CLI of an HP ProCurve 3500yl switch?
(Select three.)
3500yl-24G#
A.enable IP routing
B.update switch software
C.disable ports
D.erase startup configuration
E.define management passwords
F.restart the switch
G.assign IP address to VLAN interface
Answer: BDF

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NO.8 You must define a hostname on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch. Which configuration context must you
enter to perform this task?
A.interface
B.global configuration
C.manager
D.operator
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the effect of the following command issued at the CLI of an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch?
5406zl# configure terminal
A.The CLI moves to the global configuration context.
B.The CLI provides an interface for configuring persistent terminal variables such as line length.
C.The CLI displays user input in the terminal.
D.The CLI displays current configuration parameters.
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP ProCurve switch with factory
default settings?
ProCurveSwitch# exit
A.All switch ports are enabled.
B.The user is logged out of the CLI.
C.The privilege level moves from Manager to Operator.
D.The CLI displays an authentication prompt.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-J43
Exam Name: HP (SAN Infrastructure and Solutions -v10.21)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What must you do to enable NPIV on QLogic HBAs on systems running VMware ESX 4.0?
A.Use the RBSU to enable NPIV on the HBA.
B.Replace the HBA with a Brocade HBA.
C.Update to VMware ESX 4.1.
D.No action is required because the supplied QLogic driver has NPIV enabled by default.
Answer: D

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NO.2 To ensure correct device discovery while implementing a simple SAN, what is the HP recommended
timing for powering up the online storage?
A.before the SAN Switches
B.before the tape library
C.after the router
D.after the servers
Answer: B

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NO.3 A SAN extension using FCIP with Continuous Access EVA is being implemented. Best practices dictate
using separate switches for host and replication fabrics. A high availability, no single point of failure design
is specified, however the customer only has a single ISL available between sites. Which SAN
configuration meets these requirements?
A.4-fabric
B.3-fabric
C.6-fabric
D.5-fabric
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which management tool ships at no additional charge with each B-Series SAN Switch?
A.Device Manager
B.HAFM
C.DCFM Professional
D.Enterprise Edition Fabric Manager
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a benefit of connecting servers to the SAN one HBA at a time?
A.guarantees the connections are properly documented
B.allows the switch time to balance the load
C.prevents having to reboot the server
D.verifies the HBA logs into the fabric properly
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which Microsoft command can be used to find an SMTP server IP address when configuring HP SAN
Visibility?
A.netstat
B.netsh
C.nslookup
D.mxquery
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which technologies or products are covered by the HP Enhanced Implementation Service for SANs?
(Select three.)
A.HP StorageWorks EVA 8400
B.fabric-based encryption
C.P4000 G2 scale-out cluster
D.HP StorageWorks ESL e-Series Library
E.HP BladeSystem FC or Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) switches
F.Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
Answer: BEF

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NO.8 Which task included in HP Enhanced Implementation Service for SANs is performed by the project
manager.?
A.coordinates service deployment on third-party-maintained hardware and software
B.develops tests to validate the presence of the installed storage switches
C.develops the project plan, which defines the scope of the services to be delivered
D.conducts the customer orientation session
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which functionality is added to the B-Series DCFM GUI with the Enterprise Edition?
A.connectivity map
B.minimap
C.toolbox
D.utilization legend
Answer: D

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NO.10 How do you verify a successfully completed firmware upgrade done through DCFM?
A.Right-click on the switch in the Connectivity Map and select Verify.
B.Check the heartbeat LED on the switch.
C.Select the verify action from the DCFM Firmware Management page.
D.Open Web Tools for the switch and review the event log.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-Y38
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Wireless Networks)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A national real estate agency wants to deploy a wireless network for their employees in their small local
branch offices. The primary applications that will be used on the network include the transfer of
promotional material, which has a high amount of image and graphical data, and online meetings and
webcasts. The agency data has been growing so much that they recently upgraded their broadband
connection from a T3 to an OC-3 and the IT manager is worried that this is not sufficient. The IT manager
is not on site very often and stressed the importance of reliability by saying, "Time is money and quick
network access is very important.?
You visit one of the largest branch locations and discover that it consists of twelve 10x8 ft open cubicles.
You also discover several sources of interference while conducting a preliminary site survey. The
customer's standard security system operates in the 2.4GHz band, one neighboring outdoor 802.11a
WLAN, eight neighboring 802.11g deployments, and several users of Bluetooth headsets.
Which configuration should you recommend?
A. one access point set to 802.11n 40MHz channels in the 2.4GHz band
B. two access points set to 802.11n 20MHz channels in the 2.4GHz band
C. one access point set to 802.11n 40MHz channels in the 5GHz UNII 2 band
D. two access points set to 802.11n 40MHz channels in the 5GHz UNII 1 band
E. two access points set to 802.11n 20MHz channels in the 5GHz UNII 2 band
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer wants to extend a network between offices without installing underground lines or
extending overhead lines. Your solution for this customer will include Dynamic MESH. Which primary
factors should you consider for this wireless network? (Select two.)
A. distances between two points
B. type of network traffic the local mesh will handle
C. high-availability requirements
D. what channels the access point needs to use
E. length of cable needed to connect the antenna
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Which type of packet does IACTP use to set up the data tunnel when the client is roaming between the
HA and the FA?
A. TCP
B. IAPP
C. Multicast
D. Broadcast
E. UDP
F. IPSec
Answer: E

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NO.4 You are designing a customer's wireless network. What information is important for you to provide to
RF Planner during the initial phase of design? (Select three.)
A. cross floor coverage
B. wall/ceiling placement of access points
C. building material database
D. the plan for 802.11n coverage as well as 802.11a/b/g coverage
E. ceiling interference database
F. interference modeling of GSM and CDMA networks
G. capacity plan
Answer: ACD

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer is deploying 25 A-WA2620E access points (APs) on each floor of a building that has three
floors. Each floor has an A-WX5002 access controller (AC). You are deploying the first AP. The exhibit
shows the CLI commands you have entered on the AC for bringing up a new AP with serial number 200.
After approximately 30 seconds, the AP has not yet come online.
What is a possible cause of this delay?
A. The CLI service template commands are incorrect.
B. LWAPP is not installed.
C. The AP is updating its software configuration.
D. The ESS interface is not fully defined.
E. The AP information is incorrect.
F. The radio configuration assigned the wrong 802.11n channel parameters.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-J39
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP P4000 SAN Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A design consists of an HP P4000 SAN solution installed across four sites. How many servers running
the central management console are required to manage the solution?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are the correct steps to create a remote copy on a P4000 G2?
A. Create the remote volume and link it to the primary volume, copy the data.
B. Create the primary volume, create the remote volume and link it to the primary volume, copy the data.
C. Create the remote volume andsnapshot, link the primary volume to the remote snapshot, copy the
data.
D. Create the primary snapshot, create the remote volume and snapshot, link it to the primary
snapshot,copy the data.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button. Which network protocol should be enabled when using ProCurve switches in an
iSCSI storage network?
A. Mesh Protocol
B. Simple Loop Prevention Protocol
C. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Point-to-Point Protocol
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are characteristics of device specific module MPIO (DSM MPIO)? (Select two.)
A. DSM MPIO redirectsiSCSI communication to the least busy storage node.
B. DSM MPIO communication offers better performance than non-DSM MPIO communication.
C. DSM MPIO is available for all operating systems withiSCSI support.
D. DSM MPIO provides the servers with the data mapping of each node.
E. DSM MPIO provides a set of built-in data transport security features.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 What is the recommended network latency on a multi-site SAN subnet?
A. below 2 ms
B. below 5 ms
C. below 9 ms
D. below 15 ms
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statements about HP P4000 SAN Network RAID levels are correct? (Select three.)
A. Copies are located on different clusters.
B. Redundant copies of blocks reside on different storage nodes.
C. Performance improves as the number of copies increases.
D. Up to four copies can be created.
E. The Network RAID level is defined per storage node.
F. The number of storage nodes in the cluster can limit the Network RAID level.
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.7 Which HBA and iSCSI initiator combination does the iSCSI protocol support? (Select two.)
A. iSCSI HBA with TCP offload engine (TOE)
B. softwareiSCSI initiator with Fibre Channel HBA
C. softwareiSCSI initiator with InfiniBand HBA
D. iSCSI Fibre Channel HBA with TCP TOE software iSCSI initiator
E. softwareiSCSI initiator with NIC
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 Which benefit does a virtual IP load balancing (VIPLB) initiator provide?
A. directsiSCSI communication to the least busy storage module
B. supports simultaneousiSCSI communication with multiple storage modules
C. selects the next storage module in the list foriSCSI communication
D. prefers the fastest connection foriSCSI communication
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is a major enhancement of SAN/iQ 8.5 over SAN/iQ 8.1?
A. Network RAID 1 and 10
B. Network RAID 5 and 6
C. application-managed snapshots
D. thin provisionedSmartClone
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which statements about remote copies are correct? (Select two.)
A. Remote copiescan not be mounted.
B. Remote copies are always thin provisioned.
C. Remote copies are asynchronous replicas of a volume.
D. Remote copies can be synchronous and asynchronous.
E. Remote copies are asynchronous replicas between different clusters.
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 How does the HP P4000 SAN solution allow aggregate application performance to be increased when
capacity is added?
A. Capacity and performance are adjusted on a linear scale.
B. Application priority can be adjusted.
C. Capacity and performance are dynamically adjusted to maintain balance.
D. Capacity and performance are balanced through the configuration of expansion modules.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which instance is responsible for access control?
A. cluster
B. server
C. management group
D. volume
Answer: B

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NO.13 At which level in HP P4000 SAN solutions is RAID configured?
A. storage node
B. volume
C. management group
D. cluster
Answer: A

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NO.14 What are potential purposes to utilize snapshots? (Select two.)
A. to restore files without tape or backup software
B. to protect against unintended manual data deletion
C. to protect against disk failures
D. to protect against multiple hardware failures
E. to prevent sensitive data from modification
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 Which operating systems does the HP P4000 SAN solution support? (Select three.)
A. Solaris 9
B. OS X Leopard 10.5.5
C. HP OpenVMS 8.3
D. Novell NetWare 6.5
E. SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 10
Answer: B,D,E

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Exam Code: HP0-Y30
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Networking Technologies)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 137 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You must configure SSH on an HP A7500 switch. Which item must be generated on the switch?
A. passphrase
B. shared secret
C. self-signed certificate
D. encryption keys
Answer: D

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NO.2 You must reset the startup configuration of an HP A-Series switch to factory defaults. Which CLI view
will enable you to complete this task?
A. manager view
B. global configuration view
C. system view
D. user view
Answer: D

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Which statement accurately describes the state of Gigabit Ethernet 3/0/12 in the HP A-Series switch
configuration shown in the exhibit?
A. The interface will be a tagged member of VLAN 12.
B. The interface will be an untagged member of VLAN 1.
C. The interface will be an untagged member of VLAN 12.
D. The interface will drop all incoming packets for VLAN 12.
Answer: C

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NO.4 At the CLI of an HP E5406 zl switch, you have assigned ports A1-A4 to VLAN 70 as untagged
members. All other configuration parameters on the E5406 zl are at default settings. The E5406 zl is
connected through port B1 to an HP E8212 zl switch. The E8212 zl has been configured with an IP
interface associated with VLAN 70, and IP routing has been enabled. On the E5406 zl, what must you do
to enable the E8212 zl to act as default gateway for VLAN 70 clients?
A. Define an IP interface in VLAN 70.
B. Configure port B1 to be a member of VLAN 70.
C. Define the VLAN 70 IP address of the E8212 zl as the default gateway.
D. Add a static route to the E8212 to the E5406 zl route table.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which type of port can handle more than one untagged VLAN on an HP A-Series switch?
A. trunk
B. access
C. aggregated
D. hybrid
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which view is indicated by the following prompt on an HP A7500 switch? <A7500>
A. system
B. operator
C. user
D. console
Answer: C

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NO.7 You have entered the following command at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch. Switch(vlan-1)# ip
address 192.168.1.225/24
The switch's other VLAN and IP parameters are at factory defaults. While testing this configuration, you
find that the switch cannot ping a server located at 192.168.2.22. You have confirmed the server is up and
available. This server is located in a data center not directly connected to your switch.
What must you configure on the switch to enable connectivity between these two devices?
A. Add a default gateway.
B. Modify the IP address to 192.168.1.225/26.
C. Enable IP routing.
D. Add the server to allowed hosts list.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which interface is available for managing A-Series switches at factory default settings?
A. Telnet
B. menu
C. console
D. web
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have initiated a console session on an HP A-Series switch at default settings. What is your
privilege level?
A. Visit (0)
B. Monitor (1)
C. System (2)
D. Manage (3)
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which A-Series switch is designed for the large data center and the enterprise core?
A. A5820
B. A7500
C. A9500
D. A12500
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch?
Switch(vlan-100)# end
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A. The CLI displays the Operator prompt.
B. The CLI displays the Manager prompt.
C. VLAN 100 is deleted from the switch.
D. The CLI displays the global configuration prompt.
Answer: D

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NO.12 You have uploaded an application file named "A12500.bin" to an HP A12500 switch.
Which command ensures this file is used during the next boot cycle?
A. boot-file cf:/A12500.bin main
B. load appfile cf:/A12500.bin main
C. boot-loader file cf:/A12500.bin main
D. set boot file cf:/A12500.bin main
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which HP E-Series switch features redundant management and fabric modules?
A. E2910 al
B. E8212 zl
C. E5412 zl
D. E4208 vl
Answer: B

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NO.14 You must define a hostname on an HP E5400 zl Series switch. Which configuration context must you
enter to perform this task?
A. manager
B. system
C. administrator
D. global configuration
Answer: D

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NO.15 You must configure VLANs and ports on an HP A7500 switch at default settings. What is the effect of
the following commands?
[SW-Gigabit-Ethernet1/0/1]port link-type trunk [SW-Gigabit-Ethernet1/0/1]port trunk permit vlan 100 101
A. The switch will forward traffic for VLANs 100 and 101 with 802.1Q tags. Traffic for VLAN 1 will be
untagged. Traffic for all other VLANs will be discarded.
B. The switch will add port 1/0/1 to a Link Aggregation Group (LAG) that is a tagged member of VLANs
100 and 101.
C. The switch will forward traffic for VLANs 100 and 101, but will discard traffic for all other VLANs.
D. The switch will forward VLAN 101 traffic with 802.1Q tags. VLAN 100 traffic will be untagged.
Answer: A

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NO.16 You must configure a port on an A5800 switch to support protocol-based VLANs and port-based
VLANs. Which port type supports this requirement?
A. hybrid
B. access
C. aggregated
D. trunk
E. tagged
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is a fit Access Point?
A. an AP that can provide WLAN services without a controller
B. an AP that has no intelligence and requires a wireless controller
C. an AP that can be deployed autonomously or with a controller
D. an AP that provides some intelligence under the management of a controller
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which HP E-Series switch models are fixed-port switches? (Select two.)
A. E8212 zl
B. E4204 vl
C. E6600-24G
D. E5406 zl
E. E3500-48G yl
Answer: CE

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NO.19 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch at
factory default settings.?
Switch# exit
A. The user is logged out of the console.
B. The privilege level moves from manager to operator.
C. Unsaved configuration changes are deleted.
D. The user exits from configuration mode.
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch?
E3500(vlan-44)#interface 23
A. The CLI displays the status of port 23.
B. Port 23 becomes a member of VLAN 44.
C. Port 23 is enabled.
D. The CLI enters the configuration context for port 23.
Answer: D

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