2014年2月24日星期一

Latest VCP410-DT study materials

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Exam Code: VCP410-DT
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 4 - Deskto)
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Total Q&A: 124 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A university has implemented VMware View for classroom labs around the campus. The View
administrator needs to ensure that students only print to the printer located in the lab. Each lab has a
dedicated printer.
Which View feature meets these requirements?
A. ThinPrint-based printing
B. Location-based printing
C. Central-based printing
D. Local-based printing
Answer: B

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NO.2 A user attempts to connect to a desktop from outside of the corporate network through a View 4.5
Security Server, but for several seconds sees only a black screen that is followed by an error message
from the View Client that indicates The connection to the remote computer ended.
What is the likely cause of this error?
A. The Security Server is not configured to accept PCoIP connection remotely.
B. The External URL for the VMware Security Server is set to an incorrect address.
C. The VPN connection was not established prior to the user connecting to the View environment.
D. The External URL for the VMware Security Server is set using an incorrect port.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer provides a list of requirements for the virtual desktop environment for consideration during a
pre-implementation discussion.
Which three customer requirements will be satisfied by the View Connection Server in its role as a
connection broker? (Choose three.)
A. user authentication
B. desktop provisioning
C. connection negotiation between the client and the virtual desktop
D. desktop assignment, if available
E. USB redirection
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 A system administrator is deploying a legacy ThinApp package to production users when the original
install media for the legacy application disappears.
Which ThinApp feature will enable the system administrator to perform an update to an existing ThinApp
package, integrate the update with the original ThinApp project, and then deploy the update across all
users?
A. Side by Side update
B. SBmerge
C. ThinApp Merge
D. AppSync
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are the virtualization software requirements for View Connection Server?
A. vSphere 4.0 Update 2 or vSphere 4.1
B. vSphere 4.0 Update 1 or vSphere 4.1
C. VMware Infrastructure 3.5 Update 4 and VirtualCenter Server 2.5 Update 5 D. VMware Infrastructure
3.5 Update 3 and VirtualCenter Server 2.5 Update 3
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two steps are part of the View Composer installation process? (Choose two.)
A. select the Enable View Composer checkbox in the View Administrator
B. install the View Composer on the vCenter Server system
C. register View Composer service on the Windows system
D. configure ODBC connection to the View Composer database
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 A new Connection Server has been added to the View environment. View administrators and clients
cannot connect to that new Connection Server. However, connectivity to the pre-existing Connection
Servers remains active.
Which three configurations should be verified to diagnose the problem.? (Choose three.)
A. that you can connect directly to the new Connection Server using telnet on port 80
B. that the View Connection Server services are running on the newly added Connection Server
C. that the IP address for the new Connection Server has not changed on the server or within DNS
D. that the Security Server associated with the Connection Server is running
E. that the vCenter Server system associated with the Connection Server is running
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 A system administrator needs to create an application repository for ThinApp deployments from the
View Administrator.
Which two items are required in order to complete this task? (Choose two.)
A. Windows network share
B. ThinApp distribution point
C. NFS datastore
D. ThinApp MSI files
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 A View administrator needs to distribute ThinApp packages from a newly created ThinApp repository.
The corresponding ThinApp package has been set with the streaming option.
Which three ThinApp specific items will be stored inside the corresponding application repository?
(Choose three.)
A. the ThinApp sandbox for the corresponding ThinApp package
B. the .EXE file for the corresponding ThinApp package
C. the .DAT file for the corresponding ThinApp package
D. the .MSI file containing the shortcut
E. a shortcut to the ThinApp package on the network share
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.10 To use previously created desktop virtual machines, which type of desktop pool should the View
administrator create?
A. automated desktop pool
B. manual desktop pool
C. persistent desktop pool
D. custom desktop pool
Answer: B

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
A proposed configuration of three Replica Servers is shown.
What can result from this configuration?
A. Multiple ADAM instances can cause a performance problem.
B. Three Replica Servers can result in client connection problems.
C. Multiple connections to Active Directory can cause a performance problem.
D. Replication over WAN connections can cause inconsistencies in the LDAP database.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two ports must be opened in the firewall to enable communication between a Security Server and
a Connection Server? (Choose two.)
A. 4001
B. 8443
C. 3389
D. 8009
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 Following a recent upgrade to the View environment to View 4.6, the option to set the PCoIP External
URL of the Security Server is not available from View Administrator.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The View Security Server was not upgraded to version 4.6.
B. The External URL should have been set during the installation of the View Security Server.
C. The View Security Server service is not running on the View Connection Server.
D. The External URL was not configured from the View Security Server Management Interface.
Answer: A

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NO.14 A company opens a new remote office with five PCoIP-enabled thin clients. The administrator
configures the clients to connect to the View Security Server installed at headquarters.
Which setting must the administrator configure on the View Security Server to make sure PCoIP is routed
to the internal network?
A. PCoIP External URL
B. PCoIP Gateway URL
C. PCoIP Gateway Address
D. External URL
Answer: A

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NO.15 A new SSL certificate has been installed on the View Security Server.
Which step must be completed to ensure that the Security Server uses the new certificate?
A. restart the VMware View Connection Server service
B. restart the VMware View Security Server service
C. start the newly created SSL_Certificate service
D. edit the locked.properties file to enable the new SSL certificate
Answer: B

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Exam Code: DP-023W
Exam Name: Veritas (Data Protection Admininstration for Windows using NetBackup 5.0 )
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Total Q&A: 86 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A moderately uses database server must be configured as a NetBackup client. The
database application is custom built and is NOT covered by a NetBackup database
agent.
The solution must conform the following conditions:
1. The server is in production around-the-clock.
2. Backups must not interrupt production.
3. Open files must be backed up.
The DB data exist on SAN attached disks through available disk space is scarce.
Which backup methods would best fit in this scenario?
A. mirror snapshot
B. copy-on-write snapshot
C. block level incremental backups
D. VERITAS Snapshot Provider enabled backup
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are enabled Multiple Data Streams for a Windows 2003 client policy.
Which file list backs up all local volumes C:, D:, and E: and the system state using
only three streams?
A. ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES
B. C:\
System_State:\
New_Stream
D:\
NEW_STREAM
E:\
C. NEW_STREAM
ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES
NEW_STREAM
D. NEW_STREAM
C:\
System_State:\
NEW_STREAM
D:\
NEW_STREAM
E:\
Answer: D

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NO.3 How do you specify an exclude list for a single policy or schedule?
A. Client properties: UNIX clients or Windows clients: Exclude List Select the policy or
schedule
B. Client properties: UNIX clients or Windows clients: Exclude list area type in the name
of the policy or schedule before the exclude list
C. Client properties: UNIX clients or Windows clients: Exclude List Exceptions to the
Exclude List area
D. Client properties: UNIX clients or Windows clients: Include List Exceptions to the
Exclude List area
Answer: A

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NO.4 Where in the NetBackup Administration Console is the file fragment size for
backups?
A. Policies
B. Storage Units
C. Media Manager > Devices
D. Host Properties > Media Manager
Answer: B

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NO.5 In the NetBackup Administration Console, where do you specify user
administration permissions?
A. Master Server Properties > Security
B. Media Server Properties > Permissions
C. Master Server Properties > Permissions
D. Master Server Properties > Authorization
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which three capabilities are available in the NetBackup 5.0 calendar-based
scheduler? (Choose three)
A. run a user backup job
B. run a NBU catalog backup
C. exclude a backup job on a specific date
D. run a backup job on the fourth Friday of the month
E. run a backup job on the last calendar day of the month.
Answer: C, D, E

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NO.7 You are performing a local UNIX NetBackup client installation.
Which two actions does the install script perform? (Choose two)
A. adds entries to the inetd configuration file.
B. tests connections to other NetBackup clients.
C. enters all media servers as SERVER entries to the vm.conf file
D. enters the master server as a SERVER entry to the bp.conf file
Answer: A, D

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NO.8 How do you set allow media overwrite for TAR, ANSI and MTF1 tapes?
A. Select Master Server Host Properties. Select Master. Select the media tab and check
the appropriate boxes.
B. Select Master Server Host Properties. Select media. Select the media tab and check the
appropriate boxes.
C. Select Master Server Host Properties. Select master and media. Select the media tab
and check the appropriate boxes.
D. Select Master Server Host Properties. Select client. Select the media tab and check the
appropriate boxes.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You are at a disaster recovery site testing restores from your offsite duplicate tapes.
To begin performing restores you must change the duplicate copies to be the
primary copy.
Which two commands do this? (Choose two)
A. bprecover
B. bpchangeprimary
C. bpimage
D. bpexpdate
Answer: B, C

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NO.10 Exhibit:
Please refer to the exhibit.
You have a Microsoft Windows 2003 client that has the volumes C:, D:, and E:. You
want to back up all local drives and the registry with the exception of drive "D:".
Exclude lists are not being used.
Which three file list entries are listed in the policy? (Choose three)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.11 Where in the NetBackup Administration Console do you create a disk location for
backups?
A. Policy
B. Storage Units
C. Host Properties
D. Device Manager
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the default volume pool in a backup policy?
A. Full
B. Duplicate
C. DataStore
D. NetBackup
E. Incremental
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which three directories are needed to back up all NetBackup catalogs? (Choose
three)
A. <install_path>\Volmgr\db
B. <install_path>\Netbackup\db
C. <install_path>\Netbackup\var
D. <install_path>\Volmgr\database
E. <install_path>\Netbackup\database
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.14 Which NetBackup option uses snapshot technology to perform rapid
snapshot-based restores?
A. Intelligent Disaster Recovery (IDR)
B. True Image Restore with Move Detection
C. Disk Staging Storage Unit Restore
D. Instant Recovery
Answer: D

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NO.15 A NetBackup system administrator is trying to restore the NetBackup catalogs after
a hard drive crash.
Which command is used to restore the NetBackup catalogs?
A. bprestore
B. bprecover
C. dbrestore
D. dbrecover
E. bpdbrecover
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which two steps do you perform to set up a scratch pool? (Choose two)
A. create a volume pool.
B. add a line in bp.conf: SCRATCH_POOL = SCRATCH
C. create a file called SCRATCH_POOL and type SCRATCH in it.
D. mark the checkbox called "Scratch Pool" in the NetBackup Administration Console.
Answer: A, D

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NO.17 What is the default media multiplex level on a schedule within a backup policy?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 99
Answer: A

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NO.18 Your environment has one master server and six SAN media servers. The systems
use Shared Storage Option (SSO) to share 10 tape drives on a single robot. Backups
run at night to various media servers and you want to duplicate all backups during
the day. All duplications must run on the master server to free media server
resources.
What would you do to allow the master server to perform all duplications?
A. unset "Drive Duplication Enabled" in device manager for SAN media servers
B. in the Vault policy set "Server Duplicate Disaster" for SAN media servers
C. set an offsite volume pool for master server access only
D. set an "Alternate Read Server" in the Vault Policy Duplication Tab
Answer: C

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NO.19 You want to force a NetBackup Windows client with multiple network interfaces to
use a specific network interface. You specify the network hostname of that interface
using the Host Properties > Client Properties window and which tab?
A. Bandwidth
B. Windows Client
C. Universal Settings
D. Global NetBackup Attributes
Answer: C, D

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NO.20 Which two statements are true about upgrading an existing NetBackup installation
to NetBackup 5.0? (Choose two)
A. All master and media servers must be on the same revision level.
B. All clients must be on the same revision level as their media servers.
C. The media servers' revision level may be one level higher than their respective clients'
revision level.
D. The master server's revision level may be one level higher than the media server's
revision level.
Answer: A, B

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NO.1 The company naming standard states that all queue names must start with the letter C.
How can the administrator of the EMS server enforce this naming standard for dynamic queues?
A. By disabling creation of dynamic destinations in the tibemsd.conf file
B. By changing create-destination permission for users
C. By having c. > as the only entry with a wildcard in the queues.conf file
D. By setting a rule to add c. as a prefix to all dynamic queues
Answer: C

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NO.2 Atopic sales, topic is bridged to two queues: FINANCE.Q and AUDIT.Q. Ten messages are sent on the
topic SALES.TOPIC. A consumer reads ten messages from FINANCE.Q.
How many messages are now in the AUDIT.Q?
A. zero
B. five
C. ten
D. twenty
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which command displays message count delivered to a queue receiver?
A. Show consumers
B. Show receivers
C. Show connections
D. Show users
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about the listen parameter? (Choose two.)
A. The listen parameter is set in the tibemsd.conf file.
B. Multiple listen parameters can be set in the TIBCO EMS configuration file.
C. TCP is the only protocol supported in the listen parameter.
D. The listen parameter is set in the transports, conf file.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 When a single message consumer is connected with an EMS server, which action can be used to
improve message consumption?
A. Enabling automatic acknowledge of all messages by the session
B. Changing delivery mode from PERSISTENT to NON_PERSISTENT
C. Increasing the prefetch value
D. Creating another instance of EMS server
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two conditions can cause messages in a queue to be moved to the undelivered queue? (Choose
two.)
A. The number of delivery attempts has reached the limit defined for the queue.
B. The number of pending messages has reached the limit defined for the queue.
C. The length of time the message has been retained in the queue has exceeded the limit defined for the
queue.
D. The overflow policy for the queue has been set to discard the oldest messages.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which two statements are true about routing queue messages? (Choose two.)
A. Routed queue messages can travel to adjacent servers without reaching the home queue.
B. Each server in the route path must have its queue defined as global.
C. The concept of zones and hops does not apply to queue messages.
D. Queue messages can travel multiple hops.
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Which two actions are most likely to improve EMS server performance.? (Choose two.)
A. Adding an additional CPU to the server running EMS
B. Improving physical disk performance
C. Switching from a file-based store to a database store
D. Increasing network I/O capacity on the server
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 How does a backup fault-tolerant server detect a failure of the primary fault-tolerant server?
A. TCP heartbeats sent from the primary server
B. TCP heartbeats sent from the backup server
C. Multicast heartbeats sent from the primary server
D. Multicast heartbeats sent from the backup server
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which three commands will update EMS configuration files when an exclusive commit command is
issued from EMS? (Choose three.)
A. set server client trace=enabled
B. set server password=password
C. set server authorization=enabled
D. set server track_message_ids=enabled
E. set server routing=enabled
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.11 An EMS server and client are receiving heartbeats. Given the following EMS server settings:
-client_timeout_server_connection = 20 seconds -server_timeout_client_connection = 10 seconds
What are two possible outcomes? (Choose two.)
A. If EMS server does not receive heartbeats from a client for a period exceeding 10 seconds, the EMS
server will close the connection.
B. If EMS server does not receive heartbeats from a client for a period exceeding 20 seconds, the EMS
server will close the connection.
C. If a client does not receive heartbeats from EMS server for a period exceeding 10 seconds, the client
will close the connection.
D. If a client does not receive heartbeats from EMS server for a period exceeding 20 seconds, the client
will close the connection.
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 A dynamic queue named q1 has been created by an EMS client.
What will be the result of executing the following command: create queue q1?
A. The command will fail saying the queue already exists.
B. The command will fail if queue has connected receivers.
C. The command will succeed and queue will be promoted to static.
D. The command will succeed and dynamic queue will be renamed.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which command creates a connection factory of type queue?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which two statements are true about selector functions? (Choose two.)
A. A selector's conditional expression can refer to values of the message body.
B. They are available for use in the bridging functions, helping to reduce unnecessary network traffic.
C. They are useful when used in conjunction with topic browser functions.
D. They are available to control the flow of messages along a route.
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 Which two statements are true about synchronous and asynchronous message consumption?
(Choose two.)
A. For synchronous consumption, the message consumer explicitly invokes a receive call on the topic or
queue.
B. The consumer can receive messages synchronously by registering a synchronous message listener to
receive the messages.
C. When asynchronously receiving messages, the consumer remains blocked until a message arrives.
D. For asynchronous consumption, a message listener can be implemented that serves as an
asynchronous event handler for messages.
Answer: B,C

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Exam Name: The Open Group (TOGAF 8 Certification for Practitioners)
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NO.1 3.1.1: Which of the following would be a good example of an infrastructure application?
A. Virtual Private Network
B. System and Network Management system
C. e-Mail
D. Office (desktop) software
E. All of these
Answer: E

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NO.2 4.1.4: The Architecture Continuum _____ the Solutions Continuum.
A. drives
B. is driven by
C. is designed to satisfy
D. is based on
E. guides and supports the evolution of
Answer: E

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NO.3 1.A.2: Typically, business goals and drivers have already been established and need only be validated.
If this is not true, what process should be followed?
A. Resequence the project to occur later in the overall program
B. The team should work with the project sponsor to create a set of goals and objectives and to validate
those goals and objectives with top management
C. The project team should create a set of placeholder goals and objectives
D. Place the project on hold until a suitable set of business goals and objectives can be defined by top
management
E. Benchmark with a similar, noncompeting organization, and adopt their best practices for business
goals and objectives
Answer: B

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NO.4 2.18: A Technical Architecture Report should contain all of these items except ___.
A. requirements traceability analysis
B. project impact analysis
C. technology architecture models
D. technical specification for each building block
E. gap analysis report
Answer: B

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NO.5 6.2.2: In TOGAF's Architecture Governance organizational structure, which group is chiefly
responsible for deployment and operations?
A. domain architects
B. IT service management
C. Chief Information Officer/Chief Technology Officer
D. program management office
E. technical support
Answer: B

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NO.6 1.G.1: What are the key inputs to Phase G - Implementation Governance?
A. reusable solution building blocks
B. statement of architecture work
C. request for architecture work
D. all of these items
E. impact analysis
Answer: D

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NO.7 1.A.5: During the Architecture Vision phase, what would be a typical source of enterprise wide
constraints?
A. The results of a detailed gap analysis
B. The project plan for the given architecture activity
C. External benchmarks
D. The organization's business and architecture principles
E. The architecture contract
Answer: D

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NO.8 1.R.1: When can new requirements be added to the requirement management repository?
A. during each phase of the ADM
B. at the Architecture Vision phase
C. anytime during Phases A through D
D. only upon completion of a business scenario
E. when submitting the Request for Architecture Work
Answer: A

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NO.9 2.5: Who usually initiates a Request for Architecture Work?
A. the sponsoring organization
B. the architecture organization
C. the CIO/CTO
D. the architecture governance board
E. senior management
Answer: A

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NO.10 1.H.1: As the ADM cycle is completed for a given architecture program, the architecture staff is
responsible for ____.
A. Project planning
B. Final appraisal of the implemented architecture
C. Ongoing monitoring of business and technology changes related to the architecture work
D. Implementation Governance
E. Internal marketing of the solution
Answer: C

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NO.11 1.CA.1: All of the following elements are required in the Application Architecture Baseline Document
except ____.
A. architecture models of the candidate system(s)
B. business and organization units supported
C. precedent and successor applications
D. owner(s) or business unit(s) responsible for requirements
E. hardware and software platforms used
Answer: A

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NO.12 1.P.3: Which of the following statements about architecture principles is most true?
A. Architecture principles must be tailored to the requirements of a given architecture project
B. Architecture principles are intended to be enduring and seldom amended
C. Architecture principles cannot transcend the organization's business strategies and objectives
D. Executive Management can define principles as a means of enforcing compliance to its policies and
rules
E. Due to their sensitive nature, architecture principles should be kept confidential
Answer: B

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NO.13 1.CA.6: Which of the following would be a potential downstream use of the qualitative criteria for the
application architecture
A. managing code quality
B. generating service level agreements
C. regression testing
D. gap analysis
E. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.14 1.E.2: During Phase E - Opportunties and Solutions, a gap analysis can be used to compare the ____
between the as-is and the to-be architecture.
A. requirements
B. Solution Building Blocks
C. Architecture Building Blocks
D. business functions
E. standards
Answer: D

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NO.15 2.23: The final version of an Impact Analysis should contain all of the following except _____.
A. prioritized projects
B. enhanced budget forecasts
C. time ordered sequencing
D. Implementation recommendations
E. measures of effectiveness
Answer: B

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NO.16 6.1.1: Which of the following is not true about the nature of governance?
A. All of these are characterisitics of governance.
B. Provides guidance on the effective use of resources to achieve the organization's strategic objectives
C. Ensure that all actions and related decisions are available to be examined by authorized parties
D. All decisions taken, processes used and their implementation will not be allowed to create unfair
advantage to any one particular party.
E. All involved parties have a commitment to adhere to procedures, processes and authority structures
established by the organisation.
Answer: A

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NO.17 1.F.1: What is the objective of Phase F?
A. To establish the IT Governance framework that will be used to direct deployment.
B. To sort the implementation projects into priority order for implementation and migration.
C. To implement change management processes that will be used to manage the implementation
projects.
D. To validate the architecture vision.
E. All of these tasks
Answer: B

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NO.18 1.D.2: The TOGAF Technical Reference Model _____.
A. is intended as an example and should be tailored to the organization's needs
B. must be used "as is" for developing comprehensive architecture models
C. contains several industry specific frameworks
D. is intended to contain the Enterprise Continuum
E. contains only solution building blocks
Answer: A

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NO.19 3.1.3: In the high level Technical Reference Model ____.
A. all of these
B. the application directly communicates to the outside environment
C. the application communicates with the application platform through the communications infrastructure
interface
D. it is possible to analyze performance crtieria
E. the communication infrastructure is very diverse
Answer: E

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NO.20 5.2: The U.S. Department of Defense C4ISR Architecture framework (now DODAF) provides an
integrated architecture model with three views. Which of these sets of views is provided?
A. logical, physical, financial
B. operational, technical, systems
C. logical, physical, operational
D. strategic, tactical, operational
E. strategic, systems, operations
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-421
Exam Name: Symantec (Design of DP Solutions for UNIX using NBU 5.0)
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Total Q&A: 110 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A new file server is being added to your NetBackup 5.0 environment. It is being used to store 1-GB
product data files for the marketing department. The marketing department already has 5,000 product
data files in place (5 TB of total disk space) and expects to add about 500 product files per week for the
next 30 weeks. After files are added they are never edited or modified.
You have an SLA with Marketing that you will perform a full backup every Saturday, and the backup must
be performed between 12:01 a.m. Saturday and Noon Sunday (a 36-hour window).
Given this, what is the minimum network bandwidth you need to handle the full backup?
A.teamed 1-gigabit (168 MB/s)
B.single 1-gigabit (84 MB/s)
C.100 base T (8.4 MB/s)
D.10 base T (0.8 MB/s)
ANSWER: A

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NO.2 The current NetBackup environment has grown to the point where catalog backups can no longer fit
on one tape.
Which two methods resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A.back up the catalog using multistaged backup
B.compress the catalog
C.stop backing up the catalog
D.compress the catalog with gzip
ANSWER: AB

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NO.3 Which three items are optional considerations in a Data Protection design? (Choose three.)
A.using supported server platforms
B.using agents for databases
C.using mirror snapshots for backups
D.using a private backup network
ANSWER: BCD

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NO.4 You want to evaluate an environment for a NetBackup 5.0 implementation. You are already aware of
which servers will be the master and media servers and which agents will be used.
What else do you determine in order to provide the proper installation requirements for NetBackup?
A.Is Name Resolution functioning properly?
B.Is every client present in the master server hosts file?
C.Is the root partition on the master server mirrored?
D.Is mySQL installed?
ANSWER: A

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NO.5 Your current environment consists of one master server, four media servers and five hundred clients.
Your company has planned to add an additional datacenter with the capacity of housing an additional
1,000 clients.
Which three things are considered when planning the expansion of your backup environment? (Choose
three.)
A.the operating system version of clients
B.SAN infrastructure available
C.cooling capacity of new datacenter
D.network connectivity between the datacenters
ANSWER: ABD

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NO.6 Your environment uses a SAN for disk access.
Which feature of NetBackup 5.0 Advanced Client is appropriate?
A.fast backups
B.off-host backups
C.referential backups
D.incremental backups
ANSWER: B

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NO.7 A database must be able to recover from a logical data error in which invalid application data has been
entered and saved.
Which data protection technique is most likely to help in this situation?
A.database server clustering
B.a backup of the database and daily logs
C.disk array based real-time replication
D.active storage mirroring
ANSWER: B

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NO.8 Given three servers named ServerA, ServerB, and ServerC, each of which has file systems /, /opt,
and /data:
Using one policy how can all drives be backed on each server except the /data file system on ServerB?
A.All servers in a policy must share the same file list, so you must create a separate policy for ServerB.
B.use ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES with UNSET and //serverb/data below it in the policy file list
C.use /opt in the policy file list and put /data in the include_list file for all servers except ServerB
D.use ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES in the policy file list and put /data in the exclude_list file for ServerB
ANSWER: D

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NO.9 When determining the required backup performance of a Data Protection design, which three items
should be determined? (Choose three.)
A.media server backup performance
B.network and SAN data rates
C.capacity of tape media
D.client backup windows
ANSWER: ABD

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NO.10 You are determining the scope of a data protection solution. You have already analyzed preferences
and deadlines.
Which two other items must be analyzed before you can provide a solution? (Choose two.)
A.information in the SLA
B.network infrastructure
C.number of employees
D.number of tapes purchased
ANSWER: AB

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NO.11 You currently administer a NetBackup 5.0 environment with a single master/media server backing up
57 network clients through 1-gigabit Ethernet. A tape library is attached to this system through a Fibre
Channel SAN.
Backups jobs are currently completing within your backup window, though there is little time to spare.
After performing an analysis, you determine that you are maximizing your Ethernet usage, but your tape
drives are only running at about half their rated capacity. Backups are performed at night on the public
Ethernet when usage is virtually nonexistent.
You are told that two new systems are being added to your environment with 4 TB of data each. These
systems must be backed up within the same backup window.
What are three ways to help accomplish this? (Choose three.)
A.set up another committed media server and share the tape drives through SSO on the SAN
B.add a second gigabit card to the master/media server for the new servers to back up across
C.make the two new large systems SAN media servers and share the tape drives through SSO on the
SAN
D.create a 1-gigabit private network for all clients to back up across and stop using the public network
altogether
ANSWER: ABC

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NO.12 You are designing a NetBackup environment. You will be using an external (non-NetBackup)
scheduling product to initiate the jobs from the Master Server.
Which three NetBackup features will be available in this configuration? (Choose three.)
A.cumulative incremental backup
B.automatic retry of failed jobs
C.multistreaming
D.multiplexing
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.13 Human Resources has three servers being backed up in a NetBackup 5.0 environment with a
requirement to be able to perform full server restores from any particular day going back three weeks.
Given the following environment standards:
Full backups are performed every other Friday.
Cumulative incremental backups are performed on all other days.
What are the minimum retention levels you should configure?
A.Full: two weeks Incremental: three weeks
B.Full: three weeks Incremental: one week
C.Full: four weeks Incremental: three weeks
D.Full: two months Incremental: three weeks
ANSWER: C

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NO.14 A current NetBackup environment takes the entire backup window to complete. Given the following
environment:
You do not use multiplexing.
There are eight clients each capable of producing 5 MB/s.
The network is capable of sustaining 60 MB/s.
The media server has three tape drives, each capable of sustaining 20 MB/s.
How do you continue to meet the backup window while adding six more similarly configured clients?
A.increase the multitape option
B.increase the network bandwidth
C.increase the number of backup schedules
D.increase the number of tape drives
ANSWER: D

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NO.15 Which two items are gathered during the data collection for a Data Protection design? (Choose two.)
A.backup client platforms and operating system versions
B.amount of Data to be backed up
C.Sales Engineers preference of tape library vendors
D.existence of network intrusion detection servers
ANSWER: AB

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NO.16 NetBackup Vault is being used to duplicate backups in an environment where there are only two tape
drives.
How many additional tape drives are needed to keep a single tape drive failure from being a single point
of failure?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
ANSWER: A

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NO.17 Your current NetBackup environment uses a tape library capable of holding 500 tapes. Each tape is
capable of holding 40 GB of data. You are putting in a new library with modern drives which supports
tapes capable of holding 300 GB each. You want to have twice the total capacity of your old library to
meet future growth.
What is the minimum number of tape slots you will need in your new library?
A.80
B.110
C.140
D.170
ANSWER: C

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NO.18 Which three items are considered in a Data Protection design? (Choose three.)
A.company hardware standards
B.the type of cabling used for networks and SAN
C.data throughput speeds over networks and SAN
D.business requirements for recovery point and time
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.19 You are designing a data protection solution for a new datacenter.
Which two things can be done to improve the overall availability of the data protection environment?
(Choose two.)
A.add an additional local disk to each backup server
B.connect each system to separate power sources
C.mirror the boot disk of each backup server
D.connect a tape drive to each client in the datacenter
ANSWER: BC

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NO.20 You have a Microsoft Windows 2003 client, which you want to add to the NetBackup domain. You do
not use VSP or NetBackup database options (for example, MSSQL, Exchange, Oracle, and so on) on this
client.
What would be the impact to downtime?
A.There will be two reboots required: one reboot to load the VERITAS installer and one reboot for
NetBackup installation.
B.There is no need for a reboot for NetBackup to be properly installed.
C.There will be one reboot to load the VERITAS installer, but NetBackup will not require a separate reboot.
D.There will be a need for one reboot for NetBackup to be properly installed.
ANSWER: B

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Exam Code: 250-312
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 246 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which two Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server agents/options support remote installation
from an existing media server? (Choose two.)
A. Active Directory Recovery Agent
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Library Expansion Option
E. Shared Storage Option
Answer: BC

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NO.2 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which method provides the most current restore point?
A. tape replication
B. tape backup
C. system rebuild
D. system deduplication
Answer: B

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NO.3 A global company must use a "follow-the-sun" backup strategy, which means that the backup servers
are constantly performing backups. The SLA requires that both DHCP and Active Directory remain
available.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Data Protection Option
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Agent for Enterprise Vault Option
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which three summaries can be found on the Job Monitor's System Summary view? (Choose three.)
A. device and media summary
B. alerts summary
C. licensing summary
D. installed patch summary
E. job summary
Answer: ABE

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NO.5 A medium-sized paper company with several remote offices deploys Symantec Backup Exec 12 for
Windows Servers Central Admin Server Option (CASO) in their data center. The company's SLA requires
that the backup environment be restored to an alternate location in the event of a data center outage.
Which CASO catalog location option meets this company's SLA?
A. Centralized Catalog
B. Distributed Catalog
C. Replicated Catalog
D. Exported Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three versions of Microsoft SQL does Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers support?
(Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Edition (MSDE) 2000
B. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express Edition
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP3a or later
E. Microsoft SQL Server 7.0
F. Microsoft SQL 2005
Answer: BDF

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NO.7 Which database application is included with Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers?
A. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Desktop Edition 2000
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
Answer: A

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NO.8 A large enterprise provides a six-hour backup window at night, but requires failed systems to be
restored immediately.
Which SLA meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
requirements?
A. RPO 0, RTO 0
B. RPO 6 hours, RTO 6 hours
C. RPO 6 hours, RTO 0
D. RPO 0, RTO 6 hours
Answer: C

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NO.9 What does the Backup Exec Environment Check utility verify to ensure that the installation process can
complete successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Is a previous version of Backup Exec installed?
B. Is there enough storage space for disk-based backups?
C. Is an SMTP Server available?
D. Are there Microsoft SQL database account privileges?
E. Are there sufficient logon account privileges?
Answer: AE

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NO.10 Which account enables Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers to access resources for
backup?
A. administrative
B. logon
C. service
D. domain
Answer: B

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NO.11 An attempt to install the Remote Agent for Linux and UNIX Servers on a UNIX server fails.
Which log can be reviewed to determine the cause of the installation failure?
A. /var/tmp/vxif/installralus/installralus.log
B. /var/logs/ralus/installralus.log
C. /install/symantec/logs/ralus.log
D. /usr/openv/symantec/logs/install.log
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers agent/option provides Microsoft Virtual Server
support?
A. Shadow Copy
B. Virtual Machine
C. System State
D. Remote Agent
Answer: D

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NO.13 Refer to the exhibit.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers option is required to manage all backups from the
data center?
A. Shared Storage Option
B. Active Directory Recovery Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Executive Desktop Option
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which media set property defines the amount of time that data can be added to a piece of media?
A. Append Period
B. Overwrite Protection Period
C. Retention Period
D. Media Update Period
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which compression type produces the least network traffic in a multi-server backup environment?
A. compression with de-duplication
B. software compression
C. hardware compression
D. compression with encryption
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which three statements are true about the attributes of a device pool? (Choose three.)
A. The All Available Drives device pool can be deleted.
B. A drive can belong to more than one device pool.
C. A device pool can contain different types of drives.
D. Device priority can be set on a device pool.
E. Multiple backup jobs can be targeted to the same device pool.
Answer: BCE

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NO.17 Which two Calendar Schedule settings can you use to schedule a job to run on the first and fifteenth of
every month? (Choose two.)
A. Specific Dates
B. Recurring Week Days
C. Recurring Days of the Month
D. Day Interval
E. Time Window
Answer: AC

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NO.18 A web-based retailer's mission-critical servers must be online constantly, providing zero downtime in
which to run a backup.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Advanced Disk-based Backup Option
B. Continuous Protection Server Option
C. Volume Shadow Copy Services Option
D. Central Admin Server Option
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which technology provides the most efficient Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
A. Remote Administration Option
B. Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec System Recovery
D. Continuous Protection Server
Answer: D

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NO.20 A financial institution has a two-hour backup window and is required to restore individual e-mails
within 20 minutes if their Microsoft Exchange Server fails.
Which Service Level Agreement (SLA) meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time
Objective (RTO) requirements?
A. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
B. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
C. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
D. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
Answer: B

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NO.21 What are two benefits of enabling Database Maintenance in Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows
Servers? (Choose two.)
A. deletes aged reports
B. exports the database to XML
C. removes alert history
D. decreases the size of the database
E. opens the database for sharing
Answer: CD

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NO.22 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers (Backup Exec) utility can be used to change
the user account listed in the Backup Exec services?
A. Services
B. BEServices
C. ServicesMgr
D. BEDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which two alert category types can be disabled? (Choose two.)
A. Warning alerts
B. Attention Required alerts
C. Error alerts
D. E-mail Failure alerts
E. Informational alerts
Answer: AE

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NO.24 Using the silent mode method, how can a backup administrator push-install Backup Exec Remote
Agent for Windows Systems simultaneously to multiple machines?
A. create a command file that reads a number from a .txt file
B. create a command file that reads remote computer names from a .txt file
C. use the Push Install Wizard to add the number of simultaneous installs
D. use the Push Install Wizard to add the parameters for the silent installation
Answer: B

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NO.25 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup administrator must recover all Microsoft Word documents (.doc) created after January 1, 2005
from the F:\CEO directory, including subfolders.
How is this accomplished?
A. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
From box; enter today's date for To box; select Include for Type
B. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.* for the File; enter 1/1/2005 for the From Box; leave the To box blank;
select Include for Type
C. enter F:\*.* for the Path; enter \CEO\*.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
the From box; enter today's date for the To box; select Exclude for Type
D. enter \* for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for the From
box; enter today's date for the To box; select Include for Type
Answer: A

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NO.26 A single tape-drive robotic library is attached to the Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers
(Backup Exec) media server but fails to display in the Backup Exec Devices window. The library is in the
correct location under the Robotic Libraries tree, but instead of listing the drive underneath it, there is a
listing of Unknown Drive. The drive name is listed under Stand-alone Drives.
What must be done to solve this problem?
A. Restart the Backup Exec Server service and scan for new devices in Windows Device Manager.
B. Power down the Backup Exec Server and the attached robotic library, then power up the robotic library
before powering up the Backup Exec Server.
C. Run the Backup Exec Device Configuration Wizard and drag the correct drive name to the position
under the robotic library.
D. Because the robotic library is unserialized and not supported by Backup Exec, replace the robotic
library with a supported robotic library.
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which two factors define a backup Service Level Agreement (SLA)? (Choose two.)
A. Recovery Point Objective
B. Recovery Time Objective
C. Recovery Method
D. Recovery Retention Period
E. Recovery Priority Objective
Answer: AB

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NO.28 Refer to the exhibit.
Annual accounting history must be archived for 120 days and marketing history must be archived for 90
days.
Which setting allows reporting for marketing and accounting history?
A. change Keep alert history to 90 days
B. change Keep job logs to 120 days
C. change Keep job history selection for keep job history to match current OPP
D. change Keep job history for selected number of days to 120
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which two statements are accurate regarding full backups and copy backups? (Choose two.)
A. Full backups and copy backups of the same resource include the same data.
B. Full backups and copy backups are different names for the exact same backup method.
C. Full backups and copy backups can be configured to reset the archive bit of backed up files.
D. Full backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; copy backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
E. Copy backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; full backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
Answer: AD

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NO.30 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component manages devices and media?
A. Advanced Device and Media Manager
B. Media Operations Manager
C. Enterprise Media Manager
D. Advanced Tape Device Manager
Answer: A

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